Important MCQ on Environmental Engineering
1) The water supply system means
(a) the entire scheme of collection and disposal of liquid waste
(b) the complete layout from the source of supply to the distribution✓
(c) construction of reservoirs
(d) construction of canals
2) The water obtained from the tube wells is known as
(a) surface water
(b) sub-surface water✓
(c) run-off
(d) potable water
3) The water obtianed from
(a) infiltration galleries
(b) springs✓
(c) rivers
(d) wells
4) The water obtianed from
(a) rains
(b) rivers
(c) reservoirs
(d) artesian wells✓
5) A pipe sunk into the ground to tap the underground water is called
(a) open well
(b) tube well✓
(c) artesian well
(d) infiltration well
6) The earth's water circulatory system is known as.
(a) water cycle
(b) hydrological cycle✓
(c) precipitation cycle
(d) all of these
7) The quantity of water available from an infiltration gallery depends upon the
(a) size of gallery
(b) nature of soil
(c) yield of source
(d) all of these✓
8) The continuous flow of water may be expected from
(a) surface springs
(b) artesian springs✓
(c) gravity springs
(d) all of these
9) The water bearing strala i.e. layers of sand, gravel etc, is called
(a) an acquifer✓
(b) an aquiclude
(c) an aquifuge
(d) zone of saturation
10) The open wells or dug wells are also known as
(a) shallow wells
(b) draw wells
(c) percolation wells
(d) all of these✓
11) The most important source of water for public water supply is
(a) lake
(b) pond
(c) river
(d) sea✓
12) Run-off is the water which flows
(a) in infiltration galleries
(b) in sewer pipes
(c) due to leakage of pipes
(d) in rivers✓
13) The formula, F = R - K (1.8 T + 32), for obtaining the annual run-off is known as
(a) Justin's formula
(b) Vermule's formula
(c) Inglis formula
(d) Khosla's formula✓
14) The growth of population may be conveniently represented by
(a) semi-logarthmic curve
(b) logistic curve✓
(c) straight line curve
(d) all of these
15) The yield of a surface stream may be obtained by
(a) cross-section velocity method
(b) strem gauging
(c) chemical method
(d) all of these✓
16)The yield of a underground source may be obtained by
(a) pumping test
(b) recupating test
(c) both (a) and (b) ✓
(d) none of these
17)The yield of the well dpends upon the
(a) permeability of the soil
(b) position of water table✓
(c) depth of well in impervious layer
(d) all of these
18)The yield of the well is measured in
(a) cum / h
(b) litres / h
(c) either (a) or (b) ✓
(d) none of these
19)The domestic use of water amounts to
(a) 20%
(b) 20%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%✓
20)The design period for a water supply project is taken as
(a) 5 to 10 years
(b) 10 to 15 years
(c) 15 to 20 years
(d) 20 to 30 years✓
21)The water mains should be designed for
(a) 100%
(b) 150%
(c) 225%✓
(d) 250%
22)Suspended impurities consist of
(a) iron
(b) chlorine
(c) bacteria✓
(d) all of these
23)Dissolved impurities consist of
(a) bacteria
(b) iron✓
(c) silt
(d) fungi
24)The presence of bacteria in water causes
(a) hardness
(b) alkalinity
(c) diseases✓
(d) bad taste
25)Colloidal impurities if associated with organic matter having bacterias becomes the chief source of
(a) hardness
(b) epidemic✓
(c) alkalinity
(d) bad taste
26)The presence of calcium and magnesium chloride in water causes
(a) softening
(b) bad taste
(c) hardness✓
(d) turbidity
27)The turbidity in water is caused due to
(a) silt
(b) clay
(c) finely divided organic matter
(d) all of these✓
28)Suspended impurities include
(a) algae
(b) protozoa
(c) fungi
(d) all of these✓
29)The prsence of sodium chloride in water
(a) causes bad taste
(b) softens the water✓
(c) increases hardness of water
(d) stops epidemic
30)The sodium carbonate in water
(a) causes bad taste
(b) softens the water
(c) increases hardness of water
(d) stops epidemic✓
31)Turbidity of water is expressed in terms of
(a) silica scale✓
(b) platinum cobalt scale
(c) pO value
(d) none of these
32)The colour of water is expressed in numbers of a
(a) silica scale
(b) platinum cobalt scale✓
(c) pO value
(d) none of these
33)The odour of water can be determined by
(a) thermometer
(b) Osmoscope✓
(c) Jackson's turbidimeter
(d) none of these
34)The commercial osmoscope is graduated with pO values from
(a) 0 to 5✓
(b) 5 to 10
(c) 10 to 15
(d) 15 to 20
35)When the pO value of water is 5, then it has
(a) no perceptible odour
(b) distinct odour
(c) faint odour
(d) extremely strong odour✓
36)The maximum permissible temperature for domestic supply is
(a) 5 to 100C
B10 to 150C✓
(c) 15 to 200C
(d) 20 to 250C
37)The maximum permissible colour for domestic supplies, on platinum cobalt scale is
(a) 5 to 10 ppm
(b) 10 to 20 ppm✓
(c) 20 to 30 ppm
(d) 30 to 40 ppm
38)The maximum permissible turbidity for domestic supplies, on silica scale is
(a) 5 to 10 ppm✓
(b) 10 to 20 ppm
(c) 20 to 30 ppm
(d) 30 to 40 ppm
39)High turbidity of water can be determined by
(a) turbidity tube
(b) Jacksons turbidimeter✓
(c) Baylis turbidimeter
(d) Hellipe turbidimeter
40)Low turbidity of water can be determined by
(a) turbidity tube
(b) Jacksons turbidimeter
(c) Baylis turbidimeter✓
(d) Hellipe turbidimeter
41)The maximum permissible total solid content in water for domestic purposes should not exceed
(a) 300 ppm
(b) 400 ppm
(c) 500 ppm✓
(d) 1000 ppm
42)The maximum permissible chloride content in water for domestic supplies should not exceed
(a) 250 ppm✓
(b) 350 ppm
(c) 450 ppm
(d) 550 ppm
43)pH value is a symbol for
(a) magnesium
(b) hydrogen✓
(c) calcium
(d) sodium
44)The product of H+ ions and OH- ions in a water solution is equal to
(a) 0
(b) 10?1
(c) 10?7
(d) 10?14✓
45)The maximum acidity in water will occur at a pH value of
(a) 0✓
(b) 2
(c) 7
(d) 14
46)The most common cause of acidity in water is
(a) hydrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) carbon dioxide✓
(d) all of these
47)When the pH value of water is
(a) equal to 7
(b) less than 7✓
(c) more than 7
48)When the pH value of water is more than 7, it represents
(a) neutal
(b) acidic
(c) alkaline✓
49)The alkalinity in water is caused by
(a) sodium carbonate
(b) potassium carbonate
(c) calcium hydroxide
(d) all of these✓
50)The maximum permissible chlorine content for public supplies should be between
(a) 0.1 to 0.2 ppm✓
(b) 0.3 to 0.4 ppm
(c) 1.2 to 4 ppm
(d) 6.5 to 8 ppm
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| Important MCQ on Environmental Engineering |
51)The maximum permissible quantity of iron and manganese in water for domestic purposes should be
(a) 0.1 ppm
(b) 0.3 ppm✓
(c) 0.6 ppm
(d) 0.8 ppm
52)The pH value of water for public supplies is limited from
(a) 2.5 to 6.5
(b) 6.5 to 8✓
(c) 8 to 10.5
(d) 10.5 to 15
53)he maximum permissible quantity of lead in water for domestic supplies is
(a) 0.01 ppm
(b) 0.05 ppm✓
(c) 0.50 ppm
(d) 1 ppm
54)Sodium carbonate causes
(a) hardness
(b) softness✓
55)The maximum permissible fluorine content in water for domestic supplies should be
(a) 0.15 ppm
(b) 1.5 ppm✓
(c) 15 ppm
(d) 150 ppm
56)Sphere shaped bacterias are called
(a) spirilla
(b) bacilli
(c) cocci✓
(d) trichobacteria
57)Membrane filter technique is used for testing
(a) E-coli✓
(b) copper
(c) pathogenic bacterias
(d) none of these
58)The bacteria which require oxygen for their survival is known as
(a) anaerobic bacteria
(b) pathogenic bacteria
(c) aerobic bacteria✓
(d) non-pathogenic bacteria
59)The bacteria which can survive without oxygen is called
(a) anaerobic bacteria✓
(b) pathogenic bacteria
(c) aerobic bacteria
(d) non-pathogenic bacteria
60)Bacterias which cause disease are called
(a) anaerobic bacteria
(b) facultative bacterias
(c) aerobic bacteria
(d) none of these✓
61)The total count of bacteria per cubic centimetre for domestic purposes varies from
(a) 0 to 100✓
(b) 100 to 150
(c) 150 to 200
(d) 200 to 250
62)Copper sulphate is the most common chemical used for controlling
(a) bacteria
(b) algae✓
(c) silt
(d) mineral matter
63)Bio-chemical oxygen demand ((b) O.(d) ) of safe drinking water must be
(a) 0✓
(b) 10
(c) 50
(d) 100
64)The rate of settling of a particle in water depends upon the
(a) viscosity of water
(b) density of water
(c) specific gravity of particle
(d) all of these✓
65)The detention time for an ordinary plain sedimentation tank is
(a) 1 to 2 hours
(b) 2 to 4 hours
(c) 6 to 8 hours✓
(d) 20 to 24 hours
66)In a plain sedimentation tank, under normal conditions, impurities are removed upto
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%✓
(d) 80%
67)The velocity of flow in any sedimentation tank should not exceed
(a) 0.05 mm/s
(b) 0.5 mm/s
(c) 5 mm/s✓
(d) 50 mm/s
68)The most common coagulant is
(a) magnesium sulphate
(b) alum✓
(c) chlorine
(d) bleaching powder
69)Which of the following is not a coagulating agent?
(a) Ferric sulphate
(b) Ferric chloride
(c) Aluminium sulphate
(d) Copper sulphate✓
70)The process of purifying water by passing it through a bed of fine granular material, is called
(a) screening
(b) filteration✓
(c) screening
(d) sedimentation
71)The void spaces in the filtering material act like a
(a) drain
(b) inlet
(c) tiny settling basins✓
(d) outlet
72)The sand, used for filteration, should not loose weight more than
(a) 2.50%
(b) 5%✓
(c) 7.50%
(d) 10%
73)The effective size of sand particles for slow sand filters varies from
(a) 0.30 to 0.35 mm✓
(b) 0.35 to 0.50 mm
(c) 0.50 to 0.65 mm
(d) 0.65 to 0.75 mm
74)The effective size of sand particles for rapid sand filters varies from
(a) 0.30 to 0.35 mm
(b) 0.35 to 0.50 mm✓
(c) 0.50 to 0.65 mm
(d) 0.65 to 0.75 mm
75)The coefficient of uniformity for slow sand filters is
(a) 1.35
(b) 1.55
(c) 1.75✓
(d) 2.05
76)The slow sand filter should be cleaned if the loss of head becomes more than
(a) 0.75 m
(b) 1.2 m✓
(c) 2.2 m
(d) 3.5 m
77)After cleaning the slow sand filter, the filtered water should not be used for a period of
(a) upto 6 hours
(b) 6 hours to 12 hours
(c) 12 hours to 24 hours
(d) 24 hours to 48 hours✓
78)Cleaning period for a slow sand filter is taken as
(a) 1 hour to 3 hours
(b) 1 day to 3 days
(c) 1 week to 3 weeks
(d) 1 month to 3 months✓
79)Rate of filteration of a slow sand filter ranges from
(a) 10 to 100 litres / h / m2
(b) 100 to 200 litres / h / m2✓
(c) 200 to 400 litres / h / m2
(d) 400 to 1000 litres / h / m2
80)Slow sand filter is efficient to remove the bacterias from the raw water to an extent of
(a) 50%
(b) 70%
(c) 85%
(d) 99%✓
81)Slow sand filter is more efficient for the removal of
(a) bacteria✓
(b) odour
(c) turbidity
(d) all of these
82)The yield of a rapid sand filter is
(a) 10 times
(b) 15 times
(c) 20 times
(d) 30 times✓
83)An arrangement for back washing is provided in
(a) slow sand filter
(b) sedimentation tank
(c) rapid sand filter✓
(d) all of these
84)In a rapid sand filter, the filter head varies from
(a) 1 to 1.5 m
(b) 1.5 to 2 m
(c) 2 to 4 m✓
(d) 4 to 5 m
85)Cleaning period for a rapid sand filter is taken as
(a) 2 to 3 hours
(b) 2 to 3 days✓
(c) 2 to 3 weeks
(d) 2 to 3 months
86)Rapid sand filter can remove bacterias upto an extent of
(a) 60% to 70%
(b) 70% to 80%
(c) 80% to 90%✓
(d) 90% to 99%
87)Rapid sand filter can remove turbidity from water upto an extent of
(a) 15 to 25 ppm
(b) 25 to 35 ppm
(c) 35 to 40 ppm✓
(d) 40 to 50 ppm
88)Pressure filters are best suited for
(a) swimming pools
(b) railway stations
(c) individual industries
(d) all of these✓
89)The process of killing pathogenic bacterias from water is called
(a) sedimentation
(b) filteration
(c) coagulation
(d) disinfection✓
90)The most commonly used disinfectant for drinking water throughout the world is
(a) alum
(b) nitorgen
(c) lime
(d) chlorine✓
91)The ideal method of disinfection of swimming pool water is by
(a) chlorination
(b) lime treatment
(c) ozonisation✓
(d) ultra-violet rays
92) The time of contact for chlorination should be at least
(a) 5 minutes
(b) 20 minutes✓
(c) 1 hour
(d) 2 hours
93) The treatment of water with only chlorine is known as
(a) plain chlorination✓
(b) post cholorination
(c) pre-chlorination
(d) de-chlorination
94) Pre-chlorination
(a) improves coagulation
(b) reduces odours
(c) reduces tastes
(d) all of these✓
95) Crystalline hydrates of 'Ice" of chlorine are formed at a temerature of
(a) below 100C✓
(b) 150C
(c) 200C
(d) above 200C
96)The apparatus used for feeding chlorine into water is called
(a) chlorine tank
(b) aeration fountain
(c) chlorinator✓
(d) none of these
97)The residual chlorine
(a) is zero
(b) is maximum
(c) reappears✓
98)The process of removing excess chlorine from water is called
(a) plain chlorination
(b) post-chlorination
(c) dechlorination✓
(d) super-chlorination
99)The process of dechlorination is followed by
(a) pre-chlorination
(b) post cholorination
(c) super chlorination✓
(d) double chlorination
100)The amount of chlorine used for plain chlorination of water is about
(a) 0.2 ppm
(b) 0.3 ppm
(c) 0.4 ppm
(d) 0.5 ppm✓
101)The most commonly used chemical for dechlorination of water is
(a) sodium thiosulphate
(b) sodium sulphite
(c) potassium permaganate
(d) all of these✓
102)In orthotolodine test, safe residual for drinking water is indicated by
(a) yellow colour✓
(b) green colour
(c) lemon yellow colour
(d) none of these
103)Bleaching powder is
(a) slaked lime
(b) chloride of lime
(c) hypo-chloride of lime
(d) hypo-chlorite of lime✓
104)The percentage of chlorine in fresh bleaching powder is
(a) 20 to 25%
(b) 25 to 30%
(c) 30 to 35%✓
(d) 35 to 40%
105)The temporary hardness in water is cused due to the salts like
(a) chlorides
(b) nitrates
(c) carbonates✓
(d) sulphates
106)The permanent hardness in water is caused due to the salts like
(a) chlorides
(b) nitrates
(c) sulphates
(d) all of these✓
107)The temporary hardness due to calcium bicarbonates can be removed by
(a) boiling✓
(b) lime process
(c) lime-soda process
(d) zeolite process
108)The permanent hardness of water can be removed by
(a) adding alum
(b) adding chlorine
(c) boiling
(d) zeolite process✓
109)By lime soda process, hardness can be reduced to less thaN
(a) 50 ppm✓
(b) 75 ppm
(c) 100 ppm
(d) 150 ppm
110)Zeolite is
(a) hydrated silica
(b) sodium silicate✓
(c) dehydrated calcium silicate
(d) none of these
111)In Zeolite process
(a) no sludge is formed
(b) water of varying quality can be treated
(c) ferrous and manganese from water are removed
(d) all of tha above✓
112)The acration of water is done to remove
(a) colour
(b) odour
(c) taste
(d) all of these✓
113)A reflux valve is also known as
(a) safety valve
(b) scour valve
(c) air valve
(d) check valve✓
114)A scour valve, in a water distribution system, is provided at
(a) low points✓
(b) high points
(c) junction points
(d) all of these
115)The hydrants are used for tapping waer from mains for
(a) fire extinguishing
(b) street washing
(c) flushing sewer lines
(d) all of these✓
116)The minimum size of a fire hydrant is
(a) 5 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 15 cm✓
(d) 20 cm
117)The capacity of the pumps is normally expressed as
(a) litres per minute
(b) cubic metres per day
(c) thousands of litres per hour
(d) all of these✓
118)The suitable layout of a distribution system for well planned cities is
(a) dead end system
(b) ring system✓
(c) radial system
(d) grid iron system
119)Garbage is a
(a) dry waste✓
(b) semi-liquid waste
(c) liquid waste
(d) none of these
120)The water from kitchens, bathrooms, wash basins is called
(a) sewage
(b) sullage✓
(c) raw sewage
(d) none of these
121)The quantity of liquid waste which flows in sewers during rainy season is called
(a) storm sewage✓
(b) dry weather flow
(c) sanitary sewage
(d) industrial waste
122)A sewer which receives storm water, surface run-off and sewage is called a
(a) common sewer
(b) combined sewer✓
(c) branch sewer
(d) outfall sewer
123)A sewer which receives discharge of a number of house sewers is called a
(a) common sewer
(b) trunk sewer
(c) lateral sewer✓
(d) branch sewer
124)A sewer which gets discharge from two or more main sewers is called
(a) main sewer
(b) trunk sewer✓
(c) combined sewer
(d) intercepting sewer
125)The water carriage sewage system removes
(a) domestic sewage
(b) industrial sewage
(c) storm sewage
(d) all of these✓
126)The quantity of storm water (Q) in liter per second is given by Q = CA3/4. This formula is called
(a) Fanning's formula
(b) Ryve's formula
(c) Dicken's formula✓
(d) Inglis formula
127)The internal diameter of the sewer should not be less than
(a) 15 cm✓
(b) 25 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 75 cm
128)For house drainage and lateral connections, we shall use
(a) stone ware sewers✓
(b) cast iron sewers
(c) concrete sewers
(d) masonry sewers
129)For the sewers of diameter less than 600 mm, the type of joint preferred is
(a) spigot and socket joint✓
(b) collar joint
(c) bandage joint
(d) mechanical joint
130)For the sewers of diameter more than 600 mm, the type of joint preferred is
(a) spigot and socket joint
(b) collar joint✓
(c) bandage joint
(d) mechanical joint
131)Manholes are, generally, located
(a) at all changes of direction
(b) at all changes of gradient
(c) at all junctions of main and branch sewers
(d) all of these✓
132)For large sewers, the maximum distance between manholes should be
(a) 75 m
(b) 150 m
(c) 200 m
(d) 300 m✓
133)The lower portion of a manhole is is known as
(a) access shaft
(b) base
(c) working chamber
(d) cover✓
134)The minimum diameter of a manhole cover should be
(a) 25 m
(b) 50 cm✓
(c) 75 cm
(d) 100 cm
135)Manholes on sewer lines are provided for
(a) periodic cleaning✓
(b) providing air for oxidation
(c) removal of part of sewerage
(d) all of these
136)drop manhole is provided if
(a) a sewer drops from a height
(b) a branch sewer discharges into the main sewer at a higher level✓
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
137)In one pipe system of plumbing, waste water is carried away from
(a) bath rooms
(b) kitchens
(c) wash basins
(d) all of these✓
138)The pipe through which liquid waste carrying human excreta flows, is called
(a) waste pipe
(b) soil pipe✓
(c) vent pipe
(d) all of these
139)A pipe installed for ventilation purpose is called
(a) waste pipe
(b) soil pipe
(c) vent pipe✓
(d) anti-siphonage pipe
140)The privy pit should be located at least
(a) 3 m✓
(b) 10 m
(c) 30 m
(d) 50 m
141)A septic tank is a
(a) sedimentation tank
(b) digestion tank
(c) combination of sedimentation and digestion tank✓
(d) aeration tank
142)The effluents from the septic tank are discharged into
(a) soak pit✓
(b) drainage
(c) oxidation pond
(d) sewer
143)The equipment used for removing paper and rags from sewers is called
(a) gouge
(b) scoop
(c) claw✓
(d) scraper
144)The minimum dissolved oxygen required in water to save the aquatic life is
(a) 1 ppm
(b) 02 ppm
(c) 4 ppm✓
(d) 8 ppm
145)The secondary treatment of sewage is carried out by the use of
(a) screens
(b) grit chambers
(c) trickling filters✓
(d) chlorinators
146)In primary settling tank, suspended solids are reduced from
(a) 10 to 20%
(b) 20 to 40%
(c) 40 to 70%✓
(d) 70 to 90%
147)In high rate activated sludge treatment, bacterias are removed from
(a) 20 to 40%
(b) 40 to 60%
(c) 60 to 80%
(d) 80 to 95%✓
148) Grit chambers of a sewage plant are usually changed after
(a) 1 day
(b) 1 week
(c) 2 weeks✓
(d) 4 weeks
149) Biological action is used in
(a) screens
(b) sedimentation tanks
(c) trickling filters✓
(d) all of these
